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CBSE Class 10 Social Science (087) sample paper 2026–27, with marking scheme
A full practice paper in the 2026–27 board pattern, 80 marks for 3 hours. 38 questions in four sections of 20 marks, History, Geography, Political Science and Economics, with case studies and two map questions. Paper AW-10SS-BP-70087; it follows the board pattern but is not an official CBSE paper.
General instructions
- This paper has 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- It is in four sections of 20 marks each: A History, B Geography, C Political Science and D Economics.
- Multiple-choice and assertion–reason questions carry 1 mark each.
- Very short answer questions carry 2 marks each. Answers should not exceed 40 words.
- Short answer questions carry 3 marks each. Answers should not exceed 60 words.
- Long answer questions carry 5 marks each. Answers should not exceed 120 words.
- Case-based questions carry 4 marks each, with sub-parts of 1, 1 and 2 marks. Answers should not exceed 100 words.
- The map questions carry 5 marks: question 9 in History (2 marks) and question 19 in Geography (3 marks). Answer them on a political outline map of India.
- Some questions have an internal choice (marked OR): answer only one of them.
The paper
Section A: History (20 marks)
- Q1. 1 mark
Johann Gottfried Herder is known for:
- hosting the Congress of Vienna (1815)
- founding Young Italy and Young Europe
- the idea of das volk
- prints of a world of democratic and social republics (1848)
- Q2. 1 mark
The Rowlatt Act of 1919 allowed political prisoners to be held without trial for:
- ten years
- two months
- six months
- two years
- Q3. 1 mark
The East India Company’s paid servant who supervised weavers was the:
- jobber
- gomastha
- fuller
- stapler
- Q4. 1 mark
The earliest hand printing developed in China, Japan and:
- India
- Italy
- Korea
- Germany
- Q5. 2 marks
What was ukiyo? Name the Japanese artist best known for it.
- Q6. 3 marks
Apart from making salt, how did people in the villages and forests take part in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain three points.
OR
How did people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to French rule? Explain three points.
- Q7. 5 marks
Explain how the expansion of colonial rule in the late nineteenth century shaped the world economy. Give five points.
OR
Compare the Non-Cooperation Movement with the Civil Disobedience Movement. Give five points.
- Q8. 4 marks
Amritsar, April 1919
Protests against the Rowlatt Act spread through many towns in the spring of 1919, with strikes and shutdowns. In Amritsar, local leaders were picked up by the police, and on 10 April the police fired on a peaceful procession, after which banks, post offices and railway stations were attacked. Martial law was imposed and General Dyer took command. On 13 April a large crowd gathered in the walled ground of Jallianwala Bagh. Some had come to protest; many others had come from nearby villages for a fair and did not know about the martial law. Dyer blocked the exits and ordered his men to fire, killing hundreds. He later said he wanted to produce a “moral effect”. As news spread, crowds came out in many north Indian towns, and the government answered with brutal repression.
Who was in command of the troops at Jallianwala Bagh?
1 markWhat did General Dyer say was the aim of his action?
1 markHow did people react to the incident, and how did the government respond? Explain one point each.
2 marks
- Q9. 2 marks
On a political outline map of India, locate and label the following: (a) The city where the Indian National Congress held its session in December 1920. (b) The city where Gandhiji organised a satyagraha of cotton mill workers in 1918.
Section B: Geography (20 marks)
- Q10. 1 mark
Which of these causes land degradation?
- contour ploughing
- industrial effluents
- shelter belts
- strip cropping
- Q11. 1 mark
The Bishnois are known for:
- declaring their own sanctuary
- involving villagers in restoring degraded forests
- protecting blackbuck, nilgai and peacocks
- resisting deforestation in the Himalayas
- Q12. 1 mark
Where is coffee mainly grown?
- Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
- Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala
- West Bengal, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
- Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
- Q13. 1 mark
Which describes peat?
- low carbon and high moisture
- a placer mineral
- the most popular commercial coal
- low-grade brown coal
- Q14. 1 mark
NW-2 runs along:
- the Brahmani and Mahanadi delta with canals
- the Brahmaputra from Sadiya to Dhubri
- the West Coast Canal in Kerala
- the Godavari–Krishna stretch with canals
- Q15. 1 mark
Assertion (A): The monazite sands of Kerala are an important resource for nuclear power. Reason (R): Monazite sands are rich in thorium, which can be used to generate nuclear energy. Choose the correct option.
- Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- A is true, but R is false.
- A is false, but R is true.
- Q16. 2 marks
Distinguish between rabi and kharif crops, giving two examples of each.
- Q17. 5 marks
The groundwater level in a fast-growing city has fallen sharply, and residents now buy water from tankers. Suggest five measures the city and its people could take.
OR
Farmers in a hill district lose their topsoil to rainwater rushing down the slopes, while farmers in a desert district find their fields buried under wind-blown sand. Suggest suitable methods of soil conservation for each district, and explain how each method works.
- Q18. 4 marks
A city that writes software
The information technology and electronics industry makes a wide range of goods and services, from television sets and telephones to computers and software. Bengaluru has grown into the electronic capital of India. Other major centres include Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore. Software technology parks give experts a single place with high-speed data links and other services. The industry has created a very large number of jobs, and many of them are held by women. Its business process outsourcing services earn the country a great deal of foreign exchange.
Which city is known as the electronic capital of India?
1 markName any two other centres of the electronics industry mentioned in the passage.
1 markExplain two ways in which the IT industry helps the Indian economy.
2 marks
- Q19. 3 marks
On a political outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols: (a) The dam on the Narmada in Gujarat that is one of India’s largest water resource projects (b) Kakrapar nuclear power plant (c) Surat cotton textile centre
Section C: Political Science (20 marks)
- Q20. 1 mark
Assertion (A): A democratic government is more likely to be legitimate than a non-democratic one. Reason (R): Democratic governments always take decisions faster than non-democratic ones. Choose the correct option.
- Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- A is true, but R is false.
- A is false, but R is true.
- Q21. 1 mark
Which of these subjects is on the Concurrent List?
- communications
- police
- education
- defence
- Q22. 1 mark
A system that values men more and gives them power over women is:
- federalism
- patriarchy
- feminism
- decentralisation
- Q23. 1 mark
According to the book, China has a:
- no-party system
- one-party system
- two-party system
- federal system
- Q24. 2 marks
What is meant by the sexual division of labour? Give one example.
- Q25. 2 marks
Why did the French-speaking community of Belgium accept equal representation in Brussels, where it was in a majority?
- Q26. 3 marks
Why do voters often feel they have no meaningful choice among political parties? Explain three points.
- Q27. 5 marks
Why has India adopted a multiparty system? Explain how coalitions and alliances work within it.
OR
Explain five ways in which Indian society remains unequal for women, despite improvements since independence.
- Q28. 4 marks
A town without parties
Imagine a town council election in which no parties are allowed. Forty candidates stand, each on a separate promise: one wants a new bus stop, another a cleaner market, a third lower water charges. Once elected, the councillors argue for months. No one has promised a plan for the whole town, so nobody can be blamed when the budget goes wrong. The councillors who lost the election have no shared voice either, and nobody organises the questioning of those in charge. Visitors from a nearby town, where parties compete, notice that there the losing side keeps a close eye on the council and voters know whom to hold responsible.
What is a political party?
1 markWhich function is performed by parties that lose an election and criticise the government?
1 markExplain two problems that the town in the passage faces because it has no political parties.
2 marks
Section D: Economics (20 marks)
- Q29. 1 mark
In the book’s table (Human Development Report 2025), Pakistan is ranked 168 and Nepal 145. Which country ranks higher in human development?
- Pakistan
- Neither is ranked
- Both rank the same
- Nepal
- Q30. 1 mark
What is meant by “intermediate goods”?
- assets owned by the government
- assets owned by individuals or companies
- more workers than needed on a job
- goods used up in making final goods
- Q31. 1 mark
The value of all final goods and services produced in a country in a year is its:
- GDP
- GVA only
- per capita income
- HDI
- Q32. 1 mark
Which of these is an example of formal credit?
- a loan from a moneylender
- credit from a trader
- a loan from a regional rural bank
- a loan from an employer
- Q33. 1 mark
What is meant by “foreign investment”?
- investment made by MNCs
- a company producing in more than one country
- a government restriction on trade
- a limit on the number of goods imported
- Q34. 1 mark
Assertion (A): Free trade between two countries tends to bring the prices of similar goods in their markets closer together. Reason (R): Foreign trade connects the markets of different countries, so producers in both countries compete closely for the same buyers. Choose the correct option.
- Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- A is true, but R is false.
- A is false, but R is true.
- Q35. 3 marks
(a) What is meant by credit? (b) Give two examples of everyday credit arrangements, naming the lender and the borrower in each.
- Q36. 3 marks
Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources on three points, with an example of each.
- Q37. 3 marks
(a) Name the two modern forms of money. (b) Explain why the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange, although a currency note has little value as paper.
- Q38. 5 marks
Arif, a furniture maker, took a bank loan to buy wood for a large wedding-season order. He finished the order on time, repaid the loan and made a good profit. Gita, a farmer, borrowed from a moneylender at a high interest rate; her crop failed and she could not repay, so she borrowed again to repay the first loan. (i) In which case did credit help the borrower? (ii) Explain two reasons why credit helped in that case. (iii) Explain two reasons why the other borrower fell into difficulty.
OR
Two students compare development indicators of three states of an imaginary country. Table: State P — per capita income ₹110,000 a year, infant mortality rate 9 per 1,000 live births, literacy rate 97%, net attendance ratio 95%; State Q — per capita income ₹225,000 a year, infant mortality rate 31 per 1,000 live births, literacy rate 62%, net attendance ratio 67%; State R — per capita income ₹145,000 a year, infant mortality rate 37 per 1,000 live births, literacy rate 84%, net attendance ratio 75%. (i) Which state has the highest per capita income, and by how much does it exceed the lowest? (ii) Which state is likely to have the best human development? Give two reasons from the table. (iii) Suggest two steps State Q should take to improve the well-being of its people.
Marking scheme
The answers and the marks for each step or point, as an examiner marks them. Open a section to check a question.
Section A: History (20 marks): answers and marks
- Q1
(c) the idea of das volk
- Q2
(d) two years
- Q3
(b) gomastha
- Q4
(c) Korea
- Q5
- Ukiyo, “pictures of the floating world”, was an art form showing ordinary human experiences, especially urban ones. (1)
- Kitagawa Utamaro, born in Edo in 1753, was widely known for his contributions to it. (1)
Also accept: these prints travelled to the US and Europe and influenced artists such as Manet, Monet and Van Gogh.
- Q6
- Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes. (1)
- Village officials resigned from their posts. (1)
- In many places forest people violated forest laws, going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze their cattle. (1)
Also accept: in some areas people also boycotted foreign cloth and picketed liquor shops.
Q6 OR- At first many welcomed the French armies: in places such as Holland, Switzerland, Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw they were seen as bringers of liberty. (1)
- The enthusiasm soon gave way to hostility, as it became clear that the new administrative arrangements did not come with political freedom. (1)
- Higher taxes, censorship and forced conscription into the French armies seemed to outweigh the advantages of the new order. (1)
- Q7
- Trade flourished and markets expanded, but for many people in the colonies a closer link with the world economy meant a loss of freedoms and livelihoods. (1)
- European conquests of the late nineteenth century brought painful economic, social and ecological changes, through which colonised societies were drawn into the world economy. (1)
- Britain and France made vast additions to their overseas territories, Belgium and Germany became new colonial powers, and in the late 1890s the United States also became a colonial power by taking over some colonies earlier held by Spain. (1)
- Colonies were reshaped to produce for the world market: in India the colonial government built a network of irrigation canals to turn semi-desert wastes in Punjab into fertile land, the canal colonies, to grow wheat and cotton for export. (1)
- Africa, with its vast land and mineral wealth, was carved up by the European powers at Berlin in 1885 to set up plantations and mines producing crops and minerals for Europe. (1)
Also accept: the canal colonies were settled by peasants from other parts of Punjab.
Q7 OR- In the Non-Cooperation Movement (1921–22) people were asked to refuse cooperation with the British; in the Civil Disobedience Movement (from 1930) they were asked not only to refuse cooperation but also to break colonial laws. (1)
- The Non-Cooperation Movement began with the surrender of titles and the boycott of government schools, courts, councils and foreign goods; the Civil Disobedience Movement began with the breaking of the salt law at Dandi. (1)
- The Non-Cooperation Movement drew in the urban middle classes, the peasants of Awadh, tribal peasants and plantation workers; in the Civil Disobedience Movement rich peasants, business groups and women took part in large numbers. (1)
- The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off in February 1922 after the violence at Chauri Chaura; the Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended with the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931, relaunched after the Round Table Conference failed, and had lost its force by 1934. (1)
- Both were led by Gandhiji, were based on non-violent satyagraha, and used the boycott of foreign cloth as a weapon. (1)
- Q8 (i)
- General Dyer. (1)
Q8 (ii)- To produce a “moral effect”: to create fear and awe in the minds of satyagrahis. (1)
Q8 (iii)- People came out on the streets in many towns of north India: there were strikes, clashes with the police and attacks on government buildings. (1)
- The government responded with brutal repression, humiliating and terrorising people; satyagrahis were made to rub their noses on the ground and crawl on the streets. (1)
Also accept: Gandhiji called off the Rowlatt satyagraha as the violence spread.
- Q9
- (a) Nagpur (Maharashtra) correctly located and labelled (1)
- (b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat) correctly located and labelled (1)
Section B: Geography (20 marks): answers and marks
- Q10
(b) industrial effluents
- Q11
(c) protecting blackbuck, nilgai and peacocks
- Q12
(a) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
- Q13
(a) low carbon and high moisture
- Q14
(b) the Brahmaputra from Sadiya to Dhubri
- Q15
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (Both are true, and R explains A: thorium, like uranium, is used to generate atomic power, and the monazite sands contain it.)
- Q16
- Rabi: sowing and harvest seasons with two examples — 1 mark (1)
- Kharif: sowing and harvest seasons with two examples — 1 mark (1)
Also accept: rabi: barley, peas, gram; kharif: maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, jute, groundnut, soyabean.
- Q17
- Compulsory rooftop rainwater harvesting — 1 mark (1)
- Recharge pits or protection of water bodies — 1 mark (1)
- Treating and reusing wastewater — 1 mark (1)
- Regulating borewells and groundwater pumping — 1 mark (1)
- Saving water at home — 1 mark (1)
Also accept: stopping industries from releasing untreated effluents; metering water supply; public awareness campaigns.
Q17 OR- Contour ploughing for the hill district, with how it slows running water — 1 mark (1)
- Terrace farming for the hill district, with how steps check erosion — 1 mark (1)
- A third method for the hills (plugging gullies or planting vegetation) explained — 1 mark (1)
- Shelter belts for the desert district, with how they break the wind — 1 mark (1)
- Strip cropping for the desert district, with how it holds the soil — 1 mark (1)
Also accept: stabilising sand dunes with plants in the desert; afforestation and controlled grazing in either district.
- Q18 (i)
- Bengaluru (1)
Q18 (ii)- Any two of the centres named in the passage (1)
Also accept: Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow or Coimbatore.
Q18 (iii)- Employment, including for women — 1 mark (1)
- Foreign exchange from outsourcing and software services — 1 mark (1)
- Q19
- (a) The dam on the Narmada in Gujarat that is one of India’s largest water resource projects correctly located and labelled — 1 mark (1)
- (b) Kakrapar nuclear power plant correctly located and labelled — 1 mark (1)
- (c) Surat cotton textile centre correctly located and labelled — 1 mark (1)
Section C: Political Science (20 marks): answers and marks
- Q20
(c) A is true, but R is false. (A is true. R is false. Democratic decisions usually take longer because they involve deliberation and negotiation.)
- Q21
(c) education
- Q22
(b) patriarchy
- Q23
(b) one-party system
- Q24
- Meaning: housework by women, outside work by men (1)
- Any one suitable example (1)
Also accept: any correct example of housework treated as women’s work.
- Q25
- Dutch speakers had accepted equal representation at the Centre (1)
- Mutual give-and-take / accommodation of both communities (1)
Also accept: it was part of a give-and-take that kept the country together.
- Q26
- Decline in ideological differences (1)
- Differences only in details; no option for really different policies (1)
- Same leaders shift between parties (1)
Also accept: this weakens the value of elections for voters.
- Q27
- Diversity of the country (1)
- Representation of many interests (1)
- Coalition governments when no party has a majority (1)
- Alliances or fronts formed to contest elections (1)
- Drawback of instability / benefit for regional voices (1)
Also accept: no party system is ideal for all countries; it evolves from a society’s nature.
Q27 OR- Education gap (1)
- Few women in high-paid jobs (1)
- Unequal pay despite the 1976 Act (1)
- Unpaid work; longer working day (1)
- Low child sex ratio / safety / any other valid point (1)
Also accept: harassment and lack of safety in public places and at home; low representation in legislatures.
- Q28 (i)
- Correct meaning: a group contesting elections to hold power, with agreed policies (1)
Q28 (ii)- Correct function: opposition (1)
Q28 (iii)- No common policy / no one responsible (1)
- No organised opposition / unstable council (1)
Also accept: decisions are slow and the council is unstable.
Section D: Economics (20 marks): answers and marks
- Q29
(d) Nepal (a smaller rank number is better)
- Q30
(d) goods used up in making final goods
- Q31
(a) GDP
- Q32
(c) a loan from a regional rural bank
- Q33
(a) investment made by MNCs
- Q34
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (A is true: buyers can choose between domestic and imported goods, so sellers in both countries compete. R is true and explains A.)
- Q35
- (a) Meaning of credit (1)
- (b) Two examples with lender and borrower named — 1 mark each (2)
Also accept: a large trader giving an advance payment to a small manufacturer; a moneylender lending to a labourer; a family taking a housing loan from a bank.
- Q36
- Meaning: replenished by nature vs. fixed stock (1)
- Examples: groundwater vs. crude oil / minerals (1)
- Overuse: renewable lost if used faster than recharge; non-renewable gets exhausted (1)
Also accept: renewable resources can be used sustainably if use stays within the rate of renewal; new reserves of non-renewable resources may be found, but the total stock is still limited.
- Q37
- (a) Currency and bank deposits (1)
- (b) Issued by RBI on behalf of the government (1); legal tender — cannot be refused in India (1) (2)
Also accept: no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.
- Q38
- (i) Arif (1)
- (ii) Two reasons: credit met working-capital needs in time; earnings exceeded loan plus reasonable interest — 1 mark each (2)
- (iii) Two reasons: crop failure / risky activity; high interest of informal credit leading to a debt trap — 1 mark each (2)
Also accept: she had no insurance or support against crop failure; she had no access to cheaper formal credit.
Q38 OR- (i) State Q, ₹115,000 more than State P (1)
- (ii) State P, with two reasons from the table (lowest IMR; highest literacy / attendance) — 1 mark each (2)
- (iii) Any two suitable steps, e.g. better public health care, more and better schools, public distribution system — 1 mark each (2)
Also accept: a working public distribution system for nutrition; awareness campaigns on hygiene and vaccination; scholarships to keep older children in school.
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